NEET 2026 Important Questions with Solution | PDF Download

Important Questions for NEET 2026 are a set of precisely selected NEET MCQ questions from the 3 core subjects, namely Physics, Chemistry and Biology. These questions are totally based on NCERT Class 11 Syllabus and NCERT Class 12 Syllabus and follow the exam pattern prescribed by NTA for NEET UG Exam 2026. NEET Important Questions 2026 helps students with identifying NEET most important questions and high-weightage chapters and improve accuracy and speed.  

Each question set on this page is according to the  NEET 2026 Syllabus and follows the NEET MCQ questions pattern of four options with one correct answer, similar to the exam. 

NEET Important Questions PDF 2026

Download the NEET Important Questions PDF directly from below:

Key Highlights of NEET UG Important Questions 2026

• Strictly follows NCERT Class 11 and Class 12 Syllabus
• All NEET important questions chapter wise covered (with high-weightage topics included)
• NEET MCQ questions format with detailed solutions
• Covers all branches of Biology (botany and zoology)
• Free NEET important questions and answers NEET important questions PDF download available (subject-wise PDFs) 
• Difficulty tags given as: Easy / Medium / Hard (as per NTA pattern)

NEET 2026 Exam Pattern - as per NTA

The NEET UG Exam Pattern for 2026 and important details about the examination are given below:

• Marking Scheme: +4 for every correct answer | -1 for every incorrect answer | 0 for unattempted ‍
• Exam Mode: Offline (OMR-based, Pen & Paper) | Duration: 3 Hours 20 Minutes

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Subject-wise NEET Important Questions with Solutions

Given below are a set of compiled subject-wise important questions and answers for NEET UG 2026. These important question sets include subjects Physics, Chemistry and Biology carefully selected and totally NCERT syllabus based.

1. NEET Physics Chapter-wise Questions with Solutions

All Physics NEET most important questions given below are from the most frequently appearing high weighted topics and are strictly NCERT class 11 and class 12 syllabus based.

a) Mechanics Questions

Q1. A block of mass 5 kg is placed on a frictionless inclined plane of angle 30°. What is the acceleration of the block down the plane? (g = 10 m/s²)

A) 2.5 m/s²  

B) 5 m/s²  

C) 8.66 m/s²  

D) 10 m/s²

[Difficulty: Easy | Source: NCERT Class 11, Ch. 5]

Answer: B) 5 m/s² 

Explanation: On a frictionless incline, a = g sin θ = 10 × sin 30° = 10 × 0.5 = 5 m/s². The net force is the component of gravity along the inclined surface. 

Q2. A body of mass 2 kg moving at 10 m/s collides with a stationary body of mass 8 kg and they stick together. What is their common velocity after collision?

A) 1 m/s  

B) 2 m/s  

C) 4 m/s  

D) 8 m/s

[Difficulty: Easy | Source: NCERT Class 11, Ch. 6]

Answer: B) 2 m/s ‍

Explanation: Conservation of momentum: m₁v₁ = (m₁ + m₂)v → 2 × 10 = (2+8)v → v = 20/10 = 2 m/s. This is a perfectly inelastic collision  - kinetic energy is not conserved. 

Q3. A solid sphere and a hollow sphere of the same mass and radius are released from the top of an inclined plane. Which one reaches the bottom first?

A) Solid sphere 

B) Hollow sphere 

C) Both reach simultaneously 

D) Depends on the angle of incline

[Difficulty: Medium | Source: NCERT Class 11, Ch. 7]

Answer: A) Solid sphere 

Explanation: Moment of inertia of solid sphere = 2/5 MR² while hollow sphere = 2/3 MR². Lower MI means less rotational inertia, giving the solid sphere higher linear acceleration. It reaches the bottom first. 

b) Thermodynamics Questions

Q4. In an adiabatic process, which of the following is true?

A) ΔQ = 0 

B) ΔU = 0 

C) ΔW = 0 

D) ΔT = 0

[Difficulty: Easy | Source: NCERT Class 11, Ch. 12]

Answer: A) ΔQ = 0 

Explanation: In an adiabatic process, no heat exchange takes place between the system and its surroundings. By the first law of thermodynamics, ΔU = ΔW, so internal energy changes due to work done. 

Q5. The efficiency of a Carnot engine operating between temperatures 500 K and 300 K is:

A) 20% 

B) 40% 

C) 60% 

D) 80%

[Difficulty: Easy | Source: NCERT Class 11, Ch. 12]

Answer: B) 40% 

Explanation: Carnot efficiency η = 1 – T₂/T₁ = 1 – 300/500 = 1 – 0.6 = 0.4 = 40%. This is the maximum possible efficiency for any heat engine operating between these two temperatures. 

c) Electricity and Magnetism Questions

Q6. Two charges +2 µC and -2 µC are placed 10 cm apart. What is the electric potential at the midpoint between them?

A) Zero 

B) 3.6 × 10⁵ V 

C) -3.6 × 10⁵ V 

D) 7.2 × 10⁵ V

[Difficulty: Medium | Source: NCERT Class 12, Ch. 2]

Answer: A) Zero 

Explanation: Electric potential is a scalar quantity. V = kq/r. At midpoint: V = k(+2µC)/0.05 + k(-2µC)/0.05 = 0. Equal magnitudes with opposite signs cancel. Note: electric field is NOT zero at this point. 

Q7. In a Wheatstone bridge, P/Q = R/S. If P = 10 Ω, Q = 20 Ω and R = 30 Ω, what is the value of S?

A) 15 Ω  

B) 20 Ω  

C) 60 Ω  

D) 30 Ω

[Difficulty: Easy | Source: NCERT Class 12, Ch. 3]

Answer: C) 60 Ω 

Explanation: Balanced Wheatstone bridge: P/Q = R/S → S = QR/P = (20 × 30)/10 = 60 Ω. At balance, no current flows through the galvanometer. 

d) Modern Physics Questions

Q8. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated through a potential difference of 100 V is approximately:

A) 0.123 Å 

B) 1.23 Å 

C) 12.3 Å 

D) 0.0123 Å

[Difficulty: Medium | Source: NCERT Class 12, Ch. 11]

Answer: B) 1.23 Å 

Explanation: Use the formula: λ = 12.27/√V Å = 12.27/√100 = 12.27/10 = 1.227 Å ≈ 1.23 Å. Memorise this formula  - it is directly applicable in NEET without derivation. 

Q9. In a nuclear fission reaction: ₉₂U²³⁵ + ₀n¹ → ₅₆Ba¹⁴¹ + ₃₆Kr⁹² + x₀n¹. The value of x is:

A) 1  

B) 2  

C) 3  

D) 4

[Difficulty: Medium | Source: NCERT Class 12, Ch. 13]

Answer: C) 3 

Explanation: Conservation of mass number: 235 + 1 = 141 + 92 + x → 236 = 233 + x → x = 3. Verify atomic numbers: 92 + 0 = 56 + 36 = 92 ✓. This is the classic U-235 fission reaction. 

Q10. In Young's double slit experiment, the fringe width is 0.2 mm. If the wavelength of light used is doubled, the new fringe width will be:

A) 0.1 mm 

B) 0.2 mm 

C) 0.4 mm 

D) 0.8 mm

[Difficulty: Easy | Source: NCERT Class 12, Ch. 10]

Answer: C) 0.4 mm 

Explanation: Fringe width β = λD/d. Fringe width is directly proportional to wavelength. If λ is doubled, β doubles → 0.4 mm. 

2. NEET Chemistry Chapter-wise Questions with Solutions

Chemistry in NEET carries 45 marks, which are easy to tagret if approach correctly. Given below are the NEET most important questions of chemistry, based on NCERT syllabus and NTA exam pattern.

a) Physical Chemistry Important Questions

Q11. The hybridisation of the central atom in SF₆ is:

A) sp³ 

B) sp³d 

C) sp³d² 

D) dsp²

[Difficulty: Easy | Source: NCERT Class 11, Ch. 4]

Answer: C) sp³d² 

Explanation: In SF₆: Sulphur has 6 bond pairs and 0 lone pairs = 6 electron domains → sp³d² hybridisation → octahedral geometry. S uses one 3s, three 3p, and two 3d orbitals. 

Q12. For the reaction N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃, if pressure is increased at constant temperature, the equilibrium will:

A) Shift to the right (towards NH₃) 

B) Shift to the left 

C) Remain unchanged 

D) Depend only on temperature

[Difficulty: Easy | Asked in NEET 2021 | Source: NCERT Class 11, Ch. 7]

Answer: A) Shift to the right (towards NH₃) 

Explanation: Le Chatelier's Principle: Increasing pressure favours the side with fewer moles of gas. Left side = 4 moles; Right side = 2 moles. Equilibrium shifts RIGHT. This is the principle behind the Haber process for ammonia synthesis. 

Q13. For a reaction at equilibrium, which of the following conditions must hold true?

A) ΔG = 0 and Q = K 

B) ΔG < 0 and Q < K 

C) ΔH = 0 

D) ΔS = 0

[Difficulty: Medium | Source: NCERT Class 11, Ch. 6]

Answer: A) ΔG = 0 and Q = K 

Explanation: At equilibrium, Gibbs free energy is at its minimum → ΔG = 0. The reaction quotient Q equals the equilibrium constant K. This is the fundamental thermodynamic criterion for chemical equilibrium. 

b) Organic Chemistry Important Questions

Q14. Which of the following undergoes SN1 reaction most readily?

A) CH₃Cl 

B) (CH₃)₂CHBr 

C) (CH₃)₃CBr 

D) CH₂=CHBr

[Difficulty: Medium | Source: NCERT Class 12, Ch. 10]

Answer: C) (CH₃)₃CBr 

Explanation: SN1 reactions proceed via carbocation intermediates. Tertiary carbocations are most stable due to hyperconjugation and the +I effect of three methyl groups. (CH₃)₃CBr forms the most stable 3° carbocation → fastest SN1. Vinyl halides do not undergo SN1 at all. 

Q15. The correct order of decreasing acidic strength  - HCOOH (I), CH₃COOH (II), CCl₃COOH (III), CF₃COOH (IV)  - is:

A) IV > III > I > II 

B) III > IV > I > II 

C) I > II > III > IV 

D) IV > I > III > II

[Difficulty: Hard | Source: NCERT Class 12, Ch. 12]

Answer: A) IV > III > I > II 

Explanation: Electron-withdrawing groups (-I effect) increase acidity by stabilising the carboxylate anion. CF₃ > CCl₃ due to higher electronegativity of F. HCOOH > CH₃COOH because the methyl group donates electrons (+I effect), reducing acidity. 

Q16. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched with its type of polymerisation?

A) Nylon-6,6  - Condensation polymer 

B) Bakelite  - Thermosetting polymer 

C) Buna-S  - Addition polymer 

D) Neoprene  - Condensation polymer

[Difficulty: Medium | Source: NCERT Class 12, Ch. 15]

Answer: D) Neoprene  - Condensation polymer 

Explanation: Neoprene (polychloroprene) is an addition polymer formed by polymerisation of chloroprene. It is NOT a condensation polymer. This 'NOT correctly matched' format is a favourite NEET question pattern. 

c) Inorganic Chemistry Important Questions

Q17. Which of the following complex ions has zero Crystal Field Stabilisation Energy (CFSE)?

A) [Ti(H₂O)₆]³⁺   

B) [V(H₂O)₆]³⁺  

C) [Mn(H₂O)₆]²⁺  

D) [Fe(H₂O)₆]³⁺

[Difficulty: Hard | Source: NCERT Class 12, Ch. 9]

Answer: C) [Mn(H₂O)₆]²⁺ 

Explanation: Mn²⁺ has a d⁵ configuration. With weak-field H₂O ligands, it is high-spin with configuration t₂g³ eg². All five d-orbitals are singly occupied → CFSE = 0 because there is no net stabilisation energy. 

Q18. Which transition metal shows the highest oxidation state among the following?

A) Chromium (Cr) 

B) Manganese (Mn) 

C) Iron (Fe) 

D) Copper (Cu)

[Difficulty: Easy | Asked in NEET 2020 | Source: NCERT Class 12, Ch. 8]

Answer: B) Manganese (Mn) 

Explanation: Mn shows a maximum oxidation state of +7 (as in KMnO₄). Cr shows +6, Fe shows +6 rarely, and Cu shows maximum +2. Manganese shows the widest range of oxidation states among 3d transition metals. 

3. NEET Biology Important Questions 

Biology carries 50% of the total NEET marks, which makes it the highest-priority subject for students. If studies nicely, a score of 300+ is not hard to go for. These topics given below alone contribute approximately 40-50 marks.

a) Botany Important Questions

Q19. In C₄ plants, the first CO₂ acceptor is:

A) RuBP 

B) PEP (Phosphoenolpyruvate) 

C) OAA (Oxaloacetic acid) 

D) ATP

[Difficulty: Easy | Asked in NEET 2019, 2022 | Source: NCERT Class 11, Ch. 13]

Answer: B) PEP (Phosphoenolpyruvate) 

Explanation: In C₄ plants (Hatch-Slack pathway), CO₂ is first fixed in mesophyll cells by the enzyme PEP carboxylase, which combines CO₂ with PEP to form OAA (a 4-carbon compound). PEP carboxylase has very high affinity for CO₂ and no oxygenase activity  - no photorespiration occurs. 

Q20. In plants, which of the following is NOT a function of stomata?

A) Gaseous exchange 

B) Transpiration 

C) Photosynthesis 

D) Translocation of food

[Difficulty: Easy | Source: NCERT Class 11, Ch. 11]

Answer: D) Translocation of food 

Explanation: Stomata are responsible for gaseous exchange, transpiration, and entry of CO₂ for photosynthesis. Translocation of food (organic solutes) occurs through phloem  - stomata have no role in this process. 

Q21. Which of the following statements about the fluid mosaic model of the plasma membrane is INCORRECT?

A) Phospholipids form a bilayer 

B) Proteins are embedded in the lipid bilayer 

C) The membrane is rigid and does not allow lateral movement 

D) Cholesterol regulates membrane fluidity

[Difficulty: Easy | Asked in NEET 2018 | Source: NCERT Class 11, Ch. 8]

Answer: C) The membrane is rigid and does not allow lateral movement 

Explanation: In the Fluid Mosaic Model (Singer and Nicolson, 1972), the membrane is FLUID  - phospholipids and proteins can move laterally within the bilayer. The membrane is NOT rigid. Cholesterol regulates fluidity by reducing phospholipid movement. 

Q22. In which of the following is the gametophyte NOT an independent free-living organism?

A) Pteris (fern) 

B) Marchantia (liverwort) 

C) Pinus (pine tree) 

D) Funaria (moss)

[Difficulty: Medium | Source: NCERT Class 11, Ch. 3]

Answer: C) Pinus 

Explanation: In gymnosperms like Pinus, the gametophyte is highly reduced and completely dependent on the sporophyte for nutrition  - it is NOT free-living. In bryophytes (Funaria, Marchantia) and pteridophytes (Pteris), the gametophyte is an independent free-living structure. 

Q23. Nitrogen fixation in leguminous plants is carried out by:

A) Nostoc (free-living) 

B) Azotobacter (free-living) 

C) Rhizobium in root nodules 

D) Clostridium

[Difficulty: Easy | Asked in NEET 2017, 2020 | Source: NCERT Class 11, Ch. 12]

Answer: C) Rhizobium in root nodules 

Explanation: Rhizobium is a symbiotic nitrogen-fixing bacterium that lives in root nodules of leguminous plants. It converts atmospheric N₂ → NH₃ using the enzyme nitrogenase. Leghemoglobin (a pink pigment) maintains the anaerobic conditions required for nitrogenase activity. 

b) Zoology Important Questions

Q24. Double fertilisation in angiosperms involves:

A) Fusion of one male gamete with egg and one with antipodals 

B) Fusion of one male gamete with egg and one with polar nuclei 

C) Fusion of two male gametes with two eggs 

D) Fusion of one male gamete with synergids

[Difficulty: Easy | Asked in NEET 2016, 2019, 2023 | Source: NCERT Class 12, Ch. 2]

Answer: B) Fusion of one male gamete with egg and one with polar nuclei 

Explanation: First male gamete + egg = diploid zygote (2n). Second male gamete + two polar nuclei = triploid primary endosperm nucleus (3n). This ensures endosperm forms only when fertilisation occurs. Unique to angiosperms  - discovered by Nawaschin. 

Q25. Sickle cell anaemia is caused by substitution of which amino acid in the haemoglobin beta chain?

A) Glutamic acid is replaced by Valine 

B) Valine is replaced by Glutamic acid 

C) Lysine is replaced by Alanine 

D) Proline is replaced by Leucine

[Difficulty: Easy | Asked in NEET 2018, 2021 | Source: NCERT Class 12, Ch. 5]

Answer: A) Glutamic acid is replaced by Valine 

Explanation: Point mutation in codon 6 of the β-globin gene: GAG → GTG. This changes Glutamic acid (hydrophilic) to Valine (hydrophobic). HbS polymerises under low O₂ conditions → sickling of RBCs. Classic example of a molecular disease. 

Q26. Which enzyme is responsible for the removal of RNA primers during DNA replication in prokaryotes?

A) DNA Polymerase I 

B) DNA Polymerase III 

C) DNA Ligase 

D) Primase

[Difficulty: Medium | Source: NCERT Class 12, Ch. 6]

Answer: A) DNA Polymerase I 

Explanation: DNA Pol I has 5'→3' exonuclease activity  - it removes RNA primers and simultaneously fills the gap with DNA nucleotides. DNA Pol III is the main replicative enzyme. DNA Ligase seals nicks between Okazaki fragments. Primase synthesises RNA primers. 

Q27. The juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) releases renin in response to:

A) Increased blood pressure 

B) Decreased blood pressure and/or decreased Na⁺ levels 

C) High ADH levels 

D) High plasma osmolarity

[Difficulty: Hard | Asked in NEET 2020, 2022 | Source: NCERT Class 11, Ch. 19]

Answer: B) Decreased blood pressure and/or decreased Na⁺ levels 

Explanation: Low BP or low Na⁺ triggers renin release → Angiotensinogen → Angiotensin I → Angiotensin II → stimulates aldosterone → Na⁺ and water reabsorption → BP rises. This is the RAAS (Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System). 

Q28. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the cardiac cycle?

A) Atrial systole → Ventricular systole → Joint diastole 

B) Ventricular systole → Atrial systole → Joint diastole 

C) Joint diastole → Ventricular systole → Atrial systole 

D) Atrial systole → Joint diastole → Ventricular systole

[Difficulty: Medium | Source: NCERT Class 11, Ch. 18]

Answer: A) Atrial systole → Ventricular systole → Joint diastole 

Explanation: Cardiac cycle (~0.8 sec): Atrial systole (0.1 s) forces blood into ventricles → Ventricular systole (0.3 s) ejects blood into aorta and pulmonary artery → Joint diastole (0.4 s) when both chambers relax and refill. 

Q29. Which enzyme is used to produce 'sticky ends' in recombinant DNA technology?

A) DNA Ligase 

B) DNA Polymerase 

C) Restriction Endonuclease 

D) Reverse Transcriptase

[Difficulty: Easy | Asked in NEET 2016, 2021 | Source: NCERT Class 12, Ch. 11]

Answer: C) Restriction Endonuclease 

Explanation: Restriction endonucleases cut DNA at specific palindromic recognition sequences, producing staggered cuts that result in single-stranded overhangs called 'sticky ends' (cohesive ends). They are the 'molecular scissors' of genetic engineering. DNA Ligase joins sticky ends together. 

Q30. The energy pyramid in an ecosystem is always upright because:

A) Biomass is the same at all trophic levels 

B) Heat energy is lost at every trophic level 

C) Top carnivores contain more energy 

D) Producers store the least energy

[Difficulty: Easy | Asked in NEET 2017 | Source: NCERT Class 12, Ch. 14]

Answer: B) Heat energy is lost at every trophic level 

Explanation: Only about 10% of energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next (Lindemann's 10% Law) - the remaining 90% is lost as heat. This continuous energy loss means each successive trophic level has less energy, making the energy pyramid always upright.

NEET 2026 Chapter-wise Weightage

When the aim is cracking top scores, a mediocre study pattern does not work. Instead of treating ALL chapters of NEET Syllabus 2026 equally, revising NEET important questions chapter wise (do or die chapters) consistently will give you 75-85% of total marks. The roadmap is given below:

1. Biology (Do or Die Chapters)

The following chapters are “Do or Die” chapters in Biology NEET UG because NEET most important questions are from these topics and appear almost every year in exams.

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2. Chemistry (Do or Die Chapters)

NEET UG Chemistry becomes much easier to prepare when attention is given to the most important and high-scoring chapters, like mentioned below in the table:

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3. Physics (Do or Die Chapters)

The NEET UG Physics most important chapters given below in the table highlight the important topics that students should not miss out during revision.

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NEET Important Questions (Chapter-wise Overview)

This section gives you an overview of ch-wise NCERT syllabus of class 11 and 12 and clarity on what chapters to target based on the no.of average questions asked from those chapters. 

1. Class 11 NEET Important Chapters

The following table gives an idea of what chapters from Class 11 NCERT Syllabus build the base of NEET UG. Revising these can help students to perform extremely well.

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2. Class 12 NEET Important Chapters

The Class 12 chapters are a major portion of NEET UG syllabus and the table given below helps you understand what all chapters to target for top notch scores.

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How Important Questions NEET Help You with Preparations?

NEET Important Questions are such an underrated tool. They are so informative and so useful for practicing and understanding exam pattern and structure. For students who are aiming for high scores, important questions for NEET 2026 are very important. Use them as:

a) Important questions NEET can help you identify your weak areas. Attempt the questions, assess through the solutions and identify mistakes, that’s it.

b) Practicing important questions of NEET helps with time management. With 200 minutes for 180 questions, speed and accuracy must go together.

c) Help Track and Reduce Mistakes. Important questions NEET help you track your mistakes and work on them by attempting and revising questions and concepts again.

More NEET Preparation Resources

Use the resources below for a well-rounded preparation plan.

• NEET UG Complete Syllabus 2026 
• NEET Previous Year Question Papers
• NEET Physics Syllabus
• NEET Chemistry Syllabus
• NEET Biology Syllabus
• NEET Live Updates 2026

FAQs

1. What are NEET important questions and what role do they play in preparation?

NEET important questions are a set of NEET MCQ questions derived from the NCERT Class 11 and 12 syllabus, selected based on PYQ analysis, chapter-wise weightage data, and NTA exam pattern. Their role in NEET preparation is multi- fold: they help identify high-priority topics, build speed and accuracy, and simulate the actual NEET MCQ questions format. Practicing these questions regularly alongside NCERT reading is one of the most effective NEET preparation strategies endorsed by top scorers and coaching institutes.

2. Which subjects are covered in the NEET 2026 important questions?

NEET 2026 important questions cover all three subjects - Physics, Chemistry, and Biology. Within Biology, both Botany and Zoology are covered. Physics covers topics from Class 11 (Mechanics, Thermodynamics, Waves) and Class 12 (Electrostatics, Optics, Modern Physics). Chemistry covers Physical, Organic, and Inorganic Chemistry. Biology covers all 10 major unit areas from the NCERT Class 11 and 12 Biology curriculum.

3. Are these NEET important questions based on the NCERT Class 11 and 12 syllabus?

Yes, absolutely. Every question on this page is strictly based on the NCERT Class 11 and 12 syllabus. The NEET exam has approximately 75-80% of its questions directly from NCERT books, diagrams, tables, and examples. Each question is tagged with its NCERT source chapter so you can cross-reference immediately. If a concept is not in your NCERT, you will not find a question about it here.

4. How many questions should I practice daily for NEET to crack the exam?

Most NEET toppers who score 600+ practice between 80 to 150 MCQs per day or atleast aim for 50-80 MCQs daily. During the revision and mock test phase (last 3-4 months before NEET), increase to 100-150 MCQs per day in timed conditions. Quality matters more than quantity: 80 well analysed MCQs with mistake review are more valuable than 200 rushed attempts with no reflection.

5. Where can I download NEET important questions PDF?

You can download the NEET important questions PDF for free directly from this page - no login, no OTP, and no registration required. PDF downloads are available separately for Physics, Chemistry, and Biology, as well as a combined all subject PDF. Each PDF includes the question, all four options, the correct answer, and a detailed NCERT- based explanation.

6. Do NEET important questions actually help in NEET 2026 preparation?

Yes, practicing NEET important questions is one of the highest ROI activities in NEET preparation, provided they are genuinely based on NCERT and PYQ analysis. Students who solve 500+ high- quality important questions per subject, with proper mistake analysis, consistently outperform those who only read NCERT without active practice. Important questions help you move from passive reading to active recall the cognitive process that converts information into long- term memory. Combined with regular mock tests and PYQ revision, they are an essential part of any 600+ NEET strategy.