NEET 2025 Important Questions with Solution | PDF Download

Preparing for NEET isn’t just about studying!  - it’s literally you working toward your dream. Whether you’re aiming for AIIMS, JIPMER, or any top medical college, everything starts with one simple belief: you CAN do this. And honestly? Every NEET topper you see today once felt the same pressure, fear, self-doubt, excitement, and hope that you’re feeling right now.

And as the exam gets closer, staying aware of NEET Live Updates 2025 simply keeps you on track while you prepare.

• your NCERT understanding gets sharper
• your speed increases
• your logical thinking improves
• and your exam confidence slowly grows

This blog brings you a super helpful collection of NEET 2025 Important Questions (with solutions), plus easy explanations and smart strategies to help you prepare more effectively without feeling lost.

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Physics NEET previous year questions

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Chemistry NEET previous year questions

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Biology NEET previous year questions

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NEET 2025 Syllabus Overview

The NEET 2025 syllabus is based fully on the updated NCERT Class 11 and 12 curriculum. The syllabus covers essential units from Biology, Physics, and Chemistry that form the foundation of medical science studies. Below is a streamlined overview:

Biology (Class 11 & 12)

• Diversity in the Living World
• Structural Organisation in Plants & Animals
• Cell Structure & Function
• Plant Physiology
• Human Physiology
• Reproduction
• Genetics & Evolution
• Biology in Human Welfare
• Biotechnology & Its Applications
• Ecology & Environment

Physics (Class 11 & 12)

• Physical World, Units & Measurements
• Motion, Laws of Motion & Work-Energy
• Gravitation
• Thermodynamics & Kinetic Theory
• Oscillations & Waves
• Electrostatics, Current Electricity
• Magnetism & EMI
• Optics
• Dual Nature, Atoms & Nuclei
• Communication Systems

Chemistry (Class 11 & 12)

• Basic Concepts of Chemistry
• Structure of Atom
• Chemical Bonding & Molecular Structure
• Thermodynamics
• Equilibrium
• Organic Chemistry: Basic Principles
• Hydrocarbons
• Solutions, Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics
• p-Block, d-Block & f-Block Elements
• Coordination Compounds
• Aldehydes, Ketones, Carboxylic Acids
• Biomolecules & Polymers

NEET 2025 Important Questions with Solutions

These are the NEET Biology important questions that’ll make your revision way easier. No complicated language - ust clean, simple explanations that help you understand the concept in one go.

BIOLOGY 

Q1. Double fertilization in angiosperms involves:

A. Fusion of one male gamete with egg & one with antipodals
B. Fusion of one male gamete with egg & one with polar nuclei
C. Fusion of two male gametes with two eggs
D. Fusion of one male gamete with synergids

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: When the pollen tube enters the embryo sac, it releases two male gametes.

• One fuses with the egg → diploid zygote (2n)
• The other fuses with two polar nuclei → triploid endosperm (3n) This unique process is called double fertilization, ensuring endosperm forms only after successful fertilization.

Q2. Which of the following correctly represents transcription in eukaryotes?

A. Occurs in cytoplasm using RNA pol I
B. Occurs in nucleus using RNA pol II with post-transcriptional changes
C. Occurs in ribosomes without transcription factors
D. Produces mRNA without splicing

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Eukaryotic transcription takes place inside the nucleus using RNA Polymerase II. Steps include initiation at promoter (TATA box), elongation, termination, and processing (capping, tailing, splicing) to form mature mRNA.

Q3. Upward movement of water in tall trees is mainly due to:

A. Root pressure
B. Capillarity
C. Transpiration pull + cohesion-tension mechanism
D. Imbibition

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Water moves upward due to transpiration pull, supported by:

• Cohesion between water molecules
• Adhesion to xylem walls
• Tension created by evaporation at leaf surfaces, Root pressure helps only in small plants.

Q4. The Bohr effect explains:

A. CO₂ increases hemoglobin's affinity for O₂
B. CO₂ decreases hemoglobin's affinity for O₂
C. CO₂ has no effect on O₂ binding
D. O₂ binding is independent of pH

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: At low pH (high CO₂), hemoglobin releases oxygen more easily.
At high pH (low CO₂), hemoglobin binds oxygen more strongly.

Q5. The genetic code is called “non-overlapping and degenerate” because:

A. Each base is read multiple times
B. Codons overlap in reading
C. Several codons code for the same amino acid
D. One codon codes for multiple amino acids

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Each codon is read once, and many amino acids have multiple codons, reducing impact of mutations.

Q6. Muscle contraction occurs due to the sliding of:

A. Myosin over actin
B. Actin over myosin
C. Troponin over tropomyosin
D. Sarcolemma over sarcomere

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Calcium exposes binding sites on actin → myosin binds → power stroke → actin slides inward → sarcomere shortens.

Q7. Genetic variation in meiosis arises during:

A. Prophase I and Metaphase I
B. Prophase II and Telophase I
C. Metaphase II only
D. Anaphase II only

Correct Answer: A

Here is the explanation:

• Crossing over in Prophase I
• Independent assortment in Metaphase I,These create unique gametes.

Q8. Nitrogen fixation in leguminous plants occurs due to:

A. Nostoc
B. Azotobacter
C. Rhizobium in root nodules
D. Clostridium

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Rhizobium converts atmospheric N₂ → NH₃ using nitrogenase. Leghemoglobin maintains anaerobic conditions.

Q9. The placenta is formed from:

A. Fetal tissues only
B. Maternal tissues only
C. Chorionic villi + uterine tissues
D. Yolk sac

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Placenta exchanges gases, nutrients, wastes, and produces pregnancy hormones like hCG and progesterone.

Q10. Why is the energy pyramid always upright?

A. Biomass is same at all levels
B. Heat is lost at every trophic level
C. Top carnivores have more energy
D. Producers store least energy

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Only 10% energy passes to the next level → energy decreases progressively → pyramid cannot invert.

CHEMISTRY 

Q11. The dissolution of NH₄Cl in water is endothermic because:

A. Hydration energy > lattice energy
B. Lattice energy > hydration energy
C. No energy change occurs
D. Hydration is exothermic enough

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Breaking the ionic lattice requires more energy than hydration releases → net absorption → solution feels cold.

Q12. The order of reaction depends on:

A. Stoichiometric coefficients
B. Physical state only
C. Rate law powers of concentration terms
D. Mechanism only

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Example: Rate = k[A]²[B] → Order = 3 (2+1). It is determined experimentally, not from equations.

Q13. XeF₄ has square planar shape because:

A. It has no lone pairs
B. Lone pairs occupy axial positions
C. It is sp³ hybridized
D. It has a tetrahedral geometry

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: sp³d² hybridization → 4 bond pairs + 2 lone pairs opposite → square planar.

Q14. Adsorption increases with:

A. Lower surface area
B. Higher temperature
C. Higher surface area + lower temperature
D. No dependence

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Greater surface area, low temperature, and high pressure favor adsorption.

Q15. SN1 mechanism is characterized by:

A. One-step reaction
B. Carbocation intermediate
C. No racemization
D. Weak nucleophile not required

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Tertiary halides form stable carbocations. Reaction has two steps → racemization occurs.

Q16. NaCl solution has lower freezing point than glucose because:

A. NaCl has higher mass
B. Glucose ionizes
C. NaCl ionizes into more particles
D. Glucose is volatile

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: More particles → greater colligative effect → higher freezing point depression.

Q17. HI is the strongest hydrohalic acid because:

A. It is smallest
B. Highest bond energy
C. Weakest H–I bond
D. It is insoluble

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Down the group bond length increases, bond strength decreases → HI ionizes most.

Q18. MgO has higher lattice energy than NaCl because:

A. Ionic radius is same
B. Mg²⁺ and O²⁻ have higher charges
C. Na⁺ and Cl⁻ are larger
D. MgO is covalent

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Lattice energy ∝ charge product. Mg²⁺ × O²⁻ = 4 vs Na⁺ × Cl⁻ = 1.

Q19. Molecularity differs from order because molecularity is:

A. Experimental
B. Always fractional
C. Theoretical for elementary reactions
D. Same as stoichiometric coefficient

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Order is experimental; molecularity is theoretical, always the whole number.

Q20. E2 mechanism involves:

A. Carbocation formation
B. One-step elimination with strong base
C. Syn removal of H and leaving group
D. Forms least substituted alkene

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Strong base removes β-H as leaving group leaves simultaneously → anti-periplanar → Zaitsev product.

PHYSICS 

Q21. Kinetic energy of a satellite in orbit is:

A. GMm/r
B. GMm/2r
C. 2GMm/r
D. GMm/r²

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: From centripetal force = gravitational force, v² = GM/r → KE = ½ mv² = GMm/2r.

Q22. A body executes SHM when:

A. Restoring force is proportional to displacement
B. Velocity is constant
C. Acceleration is constant
D. No restoring force present

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: F = –kx. Restoring force always opposes displacement.

Q23. Mercury forms an obtuse angle of contact with glass because:

A. Adhesive > cohesive forces
B. Cohesive > adhesive forces
C. Surface tension is low
D. It wets the surface

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Hg–Hg attraction > Hg–glass → convex meniscus → obtuse angle.

Q24. Photoelectric effect shows that:

A. Intensity decides KE
B. Frequency decides KE
C. Electrons not ejected above threshold
D. Light cannot be particle-like

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: KE ∝ frequency. Intensity affects the number of electrons, not KE.

Q25. A transformer works on:

A. Electrostatic induction
B. Direct current principle
C. Mutual induction using AC
D. Chemical reaction

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: AC in primary → changing flux → EMF in secondary.

Q26. Energy pyramid is always upright because:

A. Producers have least biomass
B. Heat lost at each level
C. Carnivores contain more energy
D. Trophic levels recycle energy

Correct Answer: B

Q27. Lens formula is:

A. 1/f = 1/u – 1/v
B. 1/f = 1/v + 1/u
C. f = uv
D. f = u+v

Correct Answer: B

Q28. Eddy current loss is minimized by:

A. Solid iron core
B. Making core thicker
C. Laminating core
D. Increasing magnetic flux

Correct Answer: C

Q29. Resonance in LCR circuit occurs when:

A. XL > XC
B. XC > XL
C. XL = XC
D. R = 0

Correct Answer: C

Q30. Magnetic field increases four times when:

A. I doubles and r doubles
B. I doubles and r halves
C. I halves and r halves
D. I same but r halves

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:B ∝ I/r → (2I)/(r/2) = 4B.

Zoology MCQs for NEET

Q1. Which is the second largest phylum?

1. Phylum Annelida
2. Phylum Echinodermata
3. Phylum Mollusca
4. Phylum Arthropoda

Ans: c)Phylum Mollusca

‍Q2.  Choose the odd one out based on coelom: Annelids, Molluscs, Platyhelminthes, Arthropods

1. Platyhelminthes
2. Arthropods
3. Annelids
4. Molluscs

Ans: a)Platyhelminthes

‍Q3.  Which one of the following characteristics is not shared by birds and mammals? 

1. Viviparity
2. Ossified endoskeleton
3. Warm Blooded 
4. Molluscs

Ans: a)Platyhelminthes

‍Q4.  Which one of the following characteristics is not shared by birds and mammals? 

1. Viviparity
2. Ossified endoskeleton
3. Warm Blooded 
4. Molluscs

Ans: a)Platyhelminthes

‍Botany MCQs for NEET

Q1.  In which of the following gametophytes is not independent free living?

1. Pteris
2. Marchantia
3. Pinus
4. Funaria

Ans: c) Pinus  

‍Q2. Which of the following are valid pointers for the demerits of the two-kingdom classification proposed by Linnaeus?

1. Chalamidomanas are autotrophic but have flagella
2. Slime moulds resemble animals in one phase of their life cycle and plants in the other phase.
3. Euglena has features of both plants and animals.

1. I, II, and III
2. I and III
3. II and III
4. I and II

Ans: a) I, II, and III

‍Q3. Indigofera, Sesbania, Salvia, Allium, Aloe, Mustard, radishes, chickpeas, and turnips have stamens of ______ different lengths of the flower.

1. Four
2. Three
3. Six
4. Three

Ans: c) Six

‍Q4. Plants growing in swamps have roots that grow vertically upwards like conical spikes and have aerating pores. Such roots are called

1. pneumatophores
2. mycorrhizal
3. conical
4. assimilatory

Ans: c) Six

‍Q5. What kind of media do certain bacteria need to grow on to make biogas?

1. Lignin
2. Cellulose
3. Chitin
4. Cheese

Ans: b) Cellulose

Q6. What kind of media do certain bacteria need to grow on to make biogas?

1. Lignin
2. Cellulose
3. Chitin
4. Cheese

Ans: b) Cellulose

‍Why Practicing with NEET UG Important Questions?

‍For a multitude of reasons, practicing NEET UG 2024 important questions is essential, especially considering that you wish to enroll in an MBBS or MDS program via NEET (National Eligibility cum Entrance Test), for undergraduate medical programs. 

• Finding Important Topics

High-yield topics have a greater probability of having questions in the exam. By concentrating on these areas, aspirants can significantly boost their exam preparation.

• Concept Clarity

Regular practicing questions can strengthen the concept foundation. This procedure strengthens your foundation of knowledge and improves the ability to use these ideas to solve problems.

• Self-Evaluation

Aspirants may evaluate their skills and shortcomings by practicing important questions. By recognizing your areas of constant difficulty, they may modify their preparation strategy to focus on those areas in need of improvement.

• Experience with Various Question Formats

Questions from NEET UG may come in distinct formats. Regular practice of important questions introduces aspirants to various question forms and improves their ability to handle a wide range of problems during the exam.

‍How to Prepare Important Questions for NEET UG 2024?

‍Preparing important questions for NEET UG requires an orderly and deliberate strategy. The following are some strategies you may take to determine and get ready for crucial questions:

• Recognize the Syllabus

Get familiar with the curriculum for NEET. Decide which chapters and important subjects are tested most frequently. This serves as the foundation for choosing significant questions.

• Go Through the Papers from Past Years

You may acquire insight into common patterns and the distribution of questions across various disciplines by going over NEET's previous years' question papers. Find the trends and concentrate on subjects that keep coming up.

• Participate in Study Groups

Take part in NEET UG study groups, where students converse about relevant subjects while exchanging perspectives. You may find questions that are difficult or that people ask a lot by working together in these groups

• Emphasis on Topics with Significant Weight

Sort the topics that have more weight in the NEET UG test by priority. Important questions are more likely to arise on these subjects. Give these sections additional time to get right.

• Stay Updated

Stay informed about any modifications to the NEET UG syllabus or test format. Make sure all of your study resources are up-to-date and applicable.

• Practice Regularly

and Consistent revision is essential to knowledge retention. Review your question bank frequently and concentrate on the sections requiring further explanation. Keep in mind that while it's essential to practise important questions it's just as important to fully understand the underlying ideas. Attempt to prepare as thoroughly and as balanced as possible to increase your chances of passing NEET.

NEET 2025 Revision Strategy

A structured revision strategy ensures that your preparation becomes smarter and more efficient.

Phase 1: Concept Building

• Read NCERT line-by-line.
• Learn diagrams, tables, and definitions.
• Make concise notes while studying.

Phase 2: Topic-wise Practice

• Solve chapter-wise MCQs after every topic.
• Attempt mixed-topic worksheets weekly.

Phase 3: Mock Test Phase

• Take a full-length mock every 2–3 days.
• Analyse mistakes immediately.
• Revisit related NCERT chapters the same day.

Phase 4: Final Polishing

• Revise high-yield chapters: Genetics, Human Physiology, Coordination Compounds, Electrostatics, Ray Optics, Thermodynamics.
• Practice formula revision and important diagrams.

This roadmap ensures that you remain consistent without burning out.

FAQs

Q1. Are these questions based on the latest NCERT?

Ans. Yes. All questions follow the updated NCERT Class 11 & 12 syllabus, which NEET is mainly based on. They cover important diagrams, definitions, and high-weightage concepts.

Q2. How many MCQs should I solve daily for NEET?

Ans. Most students aim for 80 - 120 MCQs/day, and during revision, around 150 MCQs/day. This gives enough practice while keeping accuracy in check.

Q3. Are PYQs enough to prepare for NEET?

Ans. PYQs are very helpful but not enough alone. Along with them, you must revise NCERT and practise fresh topic-wise MCQs to cover new question patterns.

Q4. What is the best way to analyse mistakes?

Ans. Note the question, correct solution, and reason for the mistake in one place. Revise the related NCERT point and attempt similar questions again after a few days.

Q5. How should I revise in the last month before NEET?

Ans. Focus on NCERT Biology, formulas for Physics/Chemistry, and regular mock tests. Analyse each mock to fix weak areas quickly.